This Page provides Nervous System Veterinary Physiology multiple-choice questions (MCQs). These MCQs are designed to help veterinary students master the fundamental principles of nervous system physiology by testing their understanding of how neurons and synapses function. You can use these questions and answers to solidify your knowledge, prepare for exams, and build confidence in applying nervous system physiology concepts to veterinary practice as well as it comes with great explanation below each question.

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Muscle Physiology MCQs

1 Troponin and tropomyosin are components of which one of the following structures?

  • A) Myosin thick filament
  • B) Sarcolemma
  • C) T tubule
  • D) Actin thin filament
  • E) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
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Troponin and tropomyosin are regulatory proteins associated with the actin filaments in skeletal and cardiac muscle. They regulate the contraction process by controlling the interaction between actin and myosin. Troponin binds calcium ions, which induces a change in the tropomyosin configuration, allowing myosin to bind to actin, resulting in muscle contraction.

2 Action potentials in skeletal muscle cells trigger the release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of what ion critical to the muscle’s contractile process?

  • A) Ca²⁺
  • B) Na⁺
  • C) K⁺
  • D) Cl⁻
  • E) HCO₃⁻
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The release of calcium ions (Ca²⁺) from the sarcoplasmic reticulum is a key step in muscle contraction. When the muscle cell’s action potential reaches the sarcoplasmic reticulum, it opens calcium release channels, allowing Ca²⁺ to flow into the cytoplasm, where it binds to troponin, initiating the contraction process.

3 A gross skeletal muscle belly can be instructed (by the central nervous system) to contract more forcefully by:

  • A) Causing more of its motor units to contract simultaneously
  • B) Increasing the amount of acetylcholine released during each neuromuscular synaptic transmission
  • C) Increasing the frequency of action potentials in the α motor neuron’s axon
  • D) Both A and C
  • E) Both B and C
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Muscle contraction strength can be increased by recruiting more motor units (spatial summation) or by increasing the rate of action potentials in the motor neurons, causing more frequent contractions (temporal summation). These two mechanisms ensure that the muscle generates more force as needed.

4 Which one of the following is not found in smooth muscle?

  • A) Actin filaments
  • B) Myosin filaments
  • C) T tubules
  • D) Voltage-gated calcium channels
  • E) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
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Smooth muscle lacks T tubules, which are found in skeletal and cardiac muscle. T tubules help transmit action potentials to the interior of muscle fibers. In smooth muscle, calcium entry for contraction is achieved mainly through caveolae, small invaginations in the plasma membrane.

5 Which one of the following is least likely to be significantly associated with a muscle that is primarily involved in brief, powerful movements?

  • A) Small motor unit
  • B) Large α motor neuron cell body
  • C) Fast-twitch fibers
  • D) White muscle
  • E) Large motor unit
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Muscles that perform brief, powerful movements typically have large motor units and fast-twitch fibers. These muscles are designed for quick and strong contractions, while small motor units are associated with fine, precise control, such as in muscles responsible for small, delicate movements.

6 Which of the following is the primary role of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle contraction?

  • A) Generating action potentials
  • B) Storing and releasing calcium ions
  • C) Conducting nerve impulses to the muscle fibers
  • D) Providing energy for contraction
  • E) Attaching myosin heads to actin
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The sarcoplasmic reticulum is an organelle in muscle cells responsible for storing calcium ions and releasing them into the cytoplasm when the muscle is stimulated by an action potential. This release of calcium is crucial for initiating the interaction between actin and myosin, which leads to muscle contraction.

7 The sliding filament mechanism in muscle contraction primarily involves which of the following processes?

  • A) Actin filaments sliding past myosin filaments
  • B) Troponin binding to myosin heads
  • C) Calcium binding to myosin heads
  • D) ATP being stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • E) Sodium ions entering the muscle fiber
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Muscle contraction occurs when actin filaments slide past myosin filaments, shortening the sarcomere and thus the entire muscle fiber. This process is powered by ATP and regulated by calcium ions released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

8 Fast-twitch muscle fibers are characterized by which of the following?

  • A) High endurance and resistance to fatigue
  • B) Extensive blood and mitochondrial supply
  • C) Rapid contraction speed but quick fatigue
  • D) High levels of myoglobin, giving a red appearance
  • E) Adaptation for slow, sustained movements
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Fast-twitch muscle fibers contract quickly and are designed for short bursts of power and speed, such as sprinting or jumping. However, they fatigue quickly because they rely on anaerobic metabolism, which produces energy less efficiently than aerobic metabolism.

9 Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of slow-twitch muscle fibers?

  • A) They have a rich supply of blood vessels and mitochondria
  • B) They fatigue quickly during intense activity
  • C) They generate more force than fast-twitch fibers
  • D) They are used primarily for brief, powerful movements
  • E) They contain low levels of myoglobin
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Slow-twitch fibers are specialized for endurance and sustained activity, such as maintaining posture or long-distance running. They rely heavily on aerobic metabolism and have abundant blood vessels, mitochondria, and myoglobin, allowing them to resist fatigue.

10 What is the function of T tubules in skeletal muscle fibers?

  • A) Storing calcium ions
  • B) Conducting action potentials into the interior of the muscle fiber
  • C) Generating energy for muscle contraction
  • D) Transmitting nerve impulses to muscle cells
  • E) Providing structural support to muscle fibers
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T tubules (transverse tubules) are extensions of the muscle fiber’s plasma membrane that penetrate into the fiber’s interior. They carry action potentials deep into the muscle fiber, allowing the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release calcium ions uniformly and ensuring synchronized contraction throughout the fiber.

11 Which of the following statements about the motor unit is correct?

  • A) Each muscle fiber is innervated by multiple motor neurons
  • B) A motor unit consists of a single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates
  • C) Larger motor units are responsible for fine control movements
  • D) All motor units consist of the same number of muscle fibers
  • E) Each motor neuron only controls a single muscle fiber
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A motor unit is defined as one motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates. Small motor units control precise movements, while larger motor units are responsible for more powerful, less precise actions. Each motor neuron can control multiple muscle fibers, but each fiber is only innervated by one motor neuron.

12 Which of the following best explains why skeletal muscle contracts more forcefully as more motor units are recruited?

  • A) More actin and myosin interactions occur as additional muscle fibers contract
  • B) The muscle fibers become larger
  • C) The sarcomeres increase in length
  • D) The muscle fibers store more calcium
  • E) ATP production increases as more motor units are recruited
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As more motor units are recruited, more muscle fibers are activated, leading to an increased number of actin and myosin interactions. This increases the total force generated by the muscle, a process known as spatial summation.

13 What is the function of calcium ions (Ca²⁺) in muscle contraction?

  • A) Depolarizing the muscle fiber membrane
  • B) Binding to troponin to remove tropomyosin from actin binding sites
  • C) Binding to actin to initiate contraction
  • D) Providing energy for myosin heads
  • E) Blocking the myosin binding sites on actin
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Calcium ions bind to troponin, causing a conformational change that moves tropomyosin away from the myosin binding sites on actin. This allows myosin heads to attach to actin, initiating the cross-bridge cycle and muscle contraction.

14 Which of the following best describes the role of ATP during muscle contraction?

  • A) ATP binds to actin to cause contraction
  • B) ATP depolarizes the muscle cell membrane
  • C) ATP is required to detach myosin heads from actin after the power stroke
  • D) ATP is used to pump calcium back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • E) ATP is stored in the T tubules for future use
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After the power stroke, ATP binds to the myosin head, causing it to detach from actin. ATP is then hydrolyzed, re-cocking the myosin head, enabling another cycle of contraction. Additionally, ATP is necessary to pump calcium ions back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum during relaxation.

15 Which of the following is true about the difference between cardiac and skeletal muscle contraction?

  • A) Cardiac muscle requires extracellular calcium for contraction, whereas skeletal muscle does not
  • B) Both cardiac and skeletal muscle contractions rely entirely on intracellular calcium sources
  • C) Cardiac muscle contains no sarcoplasmic reticulum, while skeletal muscle does
  • D) Cardiac muscle contractions are controlled by motor neurons, while skeletal muscle contractions are not
  • E) Cardiac muscle action potentials travel via T tubules, whereas skeletal muscle does not use T tubules
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In cardiac muscle, extracellular calcium influx is necessary to trigger further calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. In contrast, skeletal muscle contraction relies almost exclusively on calcium stored within the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

16 In which of the following ways is smooth muscle contraction different from skeletal muscle contraction?

  • A) Smooth muscle contraction is initiated by acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction
  • B) Smooth muscle relies mainly on extracellular calcium ions for contraction
  • C) Smooth muscle cells contain T tubules similar to skeletal muscle
  • D) Smooth muscle contracts faster than skeletal muscle
  • E) Smooth muscle contraction requires a higher concentration of ATP than skeletal muscle contraction
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Smooth muscle relies heavily on extracellular calcium because it lacks a well-developed sarcoplasmic reticulum. The calcium influx from the extracellular space triggers contraction, which is typically slower but sustained compared to skeletal muscle.

17 What is the primary function of the Z disks in a sarcomere?

  • A) They connect myosin filaments to the sarcolemma
  • B) They attach actin filaments and help define the boundaries of a sarcomere
  • C) They store calcium for muscle contraction
  • D) They provide ATP for muscle contraction
  • E) They prevent actin and myosin from interacting
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Z disks anchor the actin filaments and mark the boundaries of a sarcomere, ensuring proper alignment during muscle contraction and relaxation. They play a crucial role in maintaining the structural integrity of the sarcomere.

18 What is the significance of the motor neuron pool in muscle control?

  • A) It contains all the motor units that innervate a particular muscle
  • B) It regulates the amount of ATP used during muscle contraction
  • C) It determines the rate of action potential conduction in muscle fibers
  • D) It stores calcium ions necessary for muscle contraction
  • E) It is responsible for repairing damaged muscle fibers
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The motor neuron pool consists of all the motor neurons that innervate a specific muscle. It plays a crucial role in generating force by regulating motor unit recruitment and firing.

19 Which of the following processes best explains how muscles prevent fatigue during prolonged low-intensity activities?

  • A) Increasing the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction
  • B) Selective activation of fast-twitch fibers
  • C) Alternating the activation of different motor units
  • D) Reducing the frequency of action potentials
  • E) Storing more calcium in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
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During prolonged, low-intensity activities, muscles prevent fatigue by alternating the activation of motor units. This rotation allows some muscle fibers to rest while others maintain the required force, delaying fatigue.

20 Which of the following statements about electromyograms (EMGs) is correct?

  • A) EMGs measure the blood supply to muscles
  • B) EMGs record the electrical activity generated by muscle fibers during contraction
  • C) EMGs determine the amount of calcium stored in muscle fibers
  • D) EMGs only measure the activity of smooth muscles
  • E) EMGs are used to detect the levels of ATP in muscle cells
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An electromyogram (EMG) records the electrical activity produced by muscles during contraction. EMGs are valuable in diagnosing neuromuscular disorders and assessing muscle function.

21 What is the role of titin in the sarcomere?

  • A) It attaches myosin to the Z disk and helps maintain sarcomere elasticity
  • B) It binds calcium ions to initiate contraction
  • C) It stores ATP for muscle contraction
  • D) It blocks myosin-binding sites on actin in the absence of calcium
  • E) It regulates the release of neurotransmitters at the neuromuscular junction
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Titin is a large protein that attaches thick myosin filaments to the Z disk, maintaining sarcomere alignment and elasticity. It helps the sarcomere return to its resting length after contraction.

22 How do smooth muscle cells differ from skeletal muscle cells in terms of neural control?

  • A) Smooth muscle cells are controlled only by the somatic nervous system
  • B) Smooth muscle cells can be stimulated by autonomic neurons, hormones, or stretch
  • C) Skeletal muscle cells receive input from both excitatory and inhibitory neurons
  • D) Skeletal muscle cells contract spontaneously without neural input
  • E) Smooth muscle contraction is faster than skeletal muscle contraction
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Smooth muscle cells are regulated by the autonomic nervous system, hormones, and mechanical stimuli such as stretch. This diverse control allows smooth muscles to function independently from conscious thought.

23 Which of the following statements about excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle is correct?

  • A) Calcium influx from the extracellular fluid is the primary trigger for muscle contraction
  • B) Depolarization of the T tubules triggers calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • C) Action potentials directly cause actin and myosin to interact
  • D) Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release calcium
  • E) The contraction process starts when potassium ions enter the muscle fiber
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When an action potential travels along the sarcolemma and into the T tubules, it triggers the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. This calcium is essential for the interaction between actin and myosin that leads to muscle contraction.

24 Which of the following types of muscle fibers would you expect to predominate in muscles used for maintaining posture?

  • A) Fast-twitch glycolytic fibers
  • B) Slow-twitch fibers
  • C) Fast-twitch oxidative fibers
  • D) White muscle fibers
  • E) Large motor units
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Slow-twitch fibers are specialized for endurance activities. They rely on aerobic metabolism and are resistant to fatigue, making them ideal for muscles that maintain posture over extended periods.

25 Which mechanism allows skeletal muscle fibers to increase the force of contraction without changing the length of the muscle?

  • A) Isometric contraction
  • B) Frequency summation
  • C) Multiple fiber summation
  • D) Length-tension relationship
  • E) Isotonic contraction
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Isometric contractions occur when a muscle generates force without changing length. These contractions are essential for stabilizing joints and maintaining posture.

26 What is the primary difference between the action potentials in cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle?

  • A) Cardiac muscle action potentials are shorter in duration than those in skeletal muscle
  • B) Cardiac muscle action potentials include a plateau phase due to calcium influx
  • C) Cardiac muscle action potentials are transmitted via T tubules, while skeletal muscle does not use T tubules
  • D) Skeletal muscle action potentials rely on extracellular calcium, while cardiac muscle does not
  • E) Both types of muscle action potentials are identical
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Cardiac muscle action potentials feature a plateau phase due to prolonged calcium influx, ensuring the heart muscle contracts long enough for effective blood pumping. This distinguishes cardiac muscle from skeletal muscle.

Reflex Physiology MCQs

27 Which of the following is NOT always a component of a reflex arc?

  • A) Receptor
  • B) Central nervous system (CNS) interneuron
  • C) Sensory neuron (CNS afferent)
  • D) Motor neuron (CNS efferent)
  • E) Target (effector) organ
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Not all reflex arcs involve interneurons. Some reflexes, such as monosynaptic reflexes, involve a direct synapse between the sensory and motor neurons, bypassing the interneuron step.
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28 Which of the following is FALSE regarding sensory receptors in a reflex arc?

  • A) They transduce environmental signals into neuronal action potentials
  • B) They directly transduce CNS action potentials into physical activity of a target organ
  • C) A primary receptor can be a specialized peripheral region of a sensory neuron
  • D) They are the initial component of a reflex arc
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Sensory receptors detect external stimuli and transduce them into action potentials but do not convert CNS action potentials into physical activity, which is the role of motor neurons.

29 What happens to the frequency of action potentials in a sensory neuron as stimulus intensity increases?

  • A) Increases
  • B) Decreases
  • C) No change
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As the intensity of a stimulus increases, the frequency of action potentials generated in the sensory neuron also increases, allowing the nervous system to interpret the strength of the stimulus.

30 Which of the following is an example of a segmental reflex?

  • A) Quadriceps stretch reflex
  • B) Cutaneous trunci reflex
  • C) Vestibulospinal postural reflexes
  • D) Pupillary light reflex
  • E) Proprioceptive positioning reaction
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The quadriceps stretch reflex is a classic example of a segmental reflex, where the reflex arc occurs within a limited number of spinal segments.

31 In which type of reflex arc does the CNS circuitry traverse several spinal cord segments?

  • A) Segmental reflex
  • B) Monosynaptic reflex
  • C) Intersegmental reflex
  • D) Suprasegmental reflex
  • E) Long-loop reflex
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An intersegmental reflex arc involves pathways that traverse multiple spinal cord segments, allowing the integration of input from several levels before producing a response.

32 Which of the following reflexes is considered suprasegmental, involving both the spinal cord and the brain?

  • A) Quadriceps stretch reflex
  • B) Pupillary light reflex
  • C) Cutaneous trunci reflex
  • D) Flexor withdrawal reflex
  • E) Crossed extensor reflex
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The pupillary light reflex is a suprasegmental reflex because it involves brainstem circuits in addition to the spinal cord, allowing for the regulation of pupil diameter in response to light.

33 Which of the following best describes a polysynaptic reflex?

  • A) A reflex involving only one synapse between the sensory and motor neurons
  • B) A reflex where multiple neurons are involved between the sensory input and motor output
  • C) A reflex with no synapses in the central nervous system
  • D) A reflex with a direct connection between receptor and effector organs
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A polysynaptic reflex involves one or more interneurons between the sensory and motor neurons, allowing for more complex reflex responses compared to monosynaptic reflexes.

34 What is the role of interneurons in a polysynaptic reflex arc?

  • A) They transmit the action potential directly from sensory to motor neurons
  • B) They act as intermediaries, modulating the reflex response
  • C) They generate sensory input in response to stimuli
  • D) They provide motor output to effector organs
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Interneurons in polysynaptic reflex arcs modulate and integrate input before relaying the signal to motor neurons, contributing to more complex and adaptable reflexes.

35 Which of the following reflexes involves both excitation and inhibition of muscles?

  • A) Pupillary light reflex
  • B) Monosynaptic stretch reflex
  • C) Knee jerk reflex
  • D) Flexor withdrawal reflex
  • E) Proprioceptive positioning reaction
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The flexor withdrawal reflex involves the excitation of flexor muscles to withdraw the limb from a harmful stimulus, along with the inhibition of extensor muscles via reciprocal inhibition.

36 Which change may result from damage to descending motor tracts that modulate reflexes?

  • A) Complete loss of all reflex activity
  • B) Reduced frequency of action potentials in sensory neurons
  • C) Exaggerated reflex responses
  • D) Increased synaptic delay in the reflex arc
  • E) Decreased sensory receptor activation
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Damage to descending motor tracts can reduce inhibitory control over reflexes, resulting in exaggerated responses, known as hyperreflexia, commonly observed in spinal cord injuries.

37 What is the role of sensory receptors in a reflex arc?

  • A) They generate action potentials that directly cause muscle contraction
  • B) They detect stimuli and transduce them into action potentials
  • C) They transmit signals from the brain to motor neurons
  • D) They inhibit antagonistic muscles during reflexes
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Sensory receptors detect environmental changes (e.g., heat, pressure) and transduce them into electrical signals (action potentials) that are transmitted to the CNS for processing.

38 What happens to the intensity of a stimulus when the frequency of action potentials increases?

  • A) The CNS interprets the stimulus as more intense
  • B) The synaptic transmission slows down
  • C) The muscle fibers relax
  • D) The sensory neuron stops firing
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The CNS interprets a higher frequency of action potentials as a more intense stimulus, allowing it to respond appropriately based on the strength of the input.

39 In a monosynaptic reflex, how many synapses are involved?

  • A) None
  • B) Two
  • C) One
  • D) Three
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A monosynaptic reflex, such as the patellar reflex, involves a single synapse between a sensory neuron and a motor neuron, allowing for a rapid response.

40 Which of the following components in a reflex arc is responsible for executing the final reflex action?

  • A) Sensory receptor
  • B) CNS interneuron
  • C) Motor neuron
  • D) Synapse
  • E) Sensory neuron
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The motor neuron transmits signals from the central nervous system to the effector organ, executing the final reflex action, such as a muscle contraction.

41 In a suprasegmental reflex, which parts of the nervous system are involved?

  • A) Only the spinal cord
  • B) The spinal cord and brain
  • C) Only cranial nerves
  • D) Only peripheral nerves
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Suprasegmental reflexes involve both the spinal cord and the brain, such as the pupillary light reflex, which requires sensory input to be processed in the brainstem.

42 What is the role of reciprocal inhibition in reflex arcs?

  • A) It enhances the response of the effector organ
  • B) It prevents the contraction of antagonistic muscles during reflex actions
  • C) It allows simultaneous activation of antagonistic muscle groups
  • D) It increases the speed of signal transmission along the reflex arc
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Reciprocal inhibition ensures that when one set of muscles contracts (e.g., flexors), the antagonistic muscles (e.g., extensors) are inhibited, preventing interference with the movement.

43 What happens to reflex responses when descending motor tracts are damaged?

  • A) Reflexes are completely lost
  • B) Reflexes become exaggerated due to loss of inhibitory control
  • C) Reflexes occur at a slower rate
  • D) Reflexes bypass sensory neuron components
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Damage to descending motor tracts reduces inhibitory input, leading to exaggerated reflexes, known as hyperreflexia, often seen in spinal cord injuries.

44 Which of the following statements describes the function of interneurons in reflex arcs?

  • A) They modulate and integrate sensory input before relaying signals to motor neurons
  • B) They generate action potentials based on sensory input
  • C) They act as effector organs that respond to CNS action potentials
  • D) They transmit action potentials directly from sensory to motor neurons
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Interneurons process and modulate sensory input within the CNS before transmitting signals to motor neurons, enabling more complex reflex responses.

Muscle Spindle and Golgi Tendon Organ MCQs

45 What happens to the frequency of action potentials in sensory neurons of muscle spindles when the muscle is stretched?

  • A) Increases
  • B) Decreases
  • C) Does not change
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When a muscle is stretched, the intrafusal fibers of the muscle spindle are also stretched, increasing the frequency of action potentials generated by the sensory neurons. This allows the CNS to detect changes in muscle length.

46 Activation of the Golgi tendon organ in a muscle leads to which of the following responses?

  • A) Monosynaptically produces EPSPs on the α motor neuron that returns to that muscle
  • B) Is most effectively produced by lengthening of the extrafusal fibers
  • C) Polysynaptically produces IPSPs on the α motor neuron that returns to that muscle
  • D) Polysynaptically produces EPSPs on the α motor neuron that returns to that muscle
  • E) Activates motor neurons that return to the Golgi tendon organ itself
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The Golgi tendon organ detects tension in the muscle and sends signals that polysynaptically inhibit the α motor neurons, reducing muscle contraction and preventing excessive tension.

47 Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the muscle spindle?

  • A) Sensitivity to muscle tension
  • B) Encapsulated intrafusal fibers
  • C) Sensitivity to dynamic stretching of the muscle
  • D) Lying parallel to the extrafusal muscle fibers
  • E) Sensitivity to steady-state length of the muscle
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The muscle spindle is sensitive to changes in muscle length but not muscle tension, which is detected by the Golgi tendon organ.

48 Gamma (γ) motor neurons serve which of the following functions?

  • A) Innervate and produce contraction of the equatorial (middle) region of an intrafusal fiber
  • B) Have their cell bodies in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord
  • C) Are never activated at the same time as α motor neurons
  • D) Can regulate the sensitivity of the muscle spindle sensory organ
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Gamma motor neurons adjust the sensitivity of the muscle spindle by regulating the tension of intrafusal fibers during muscle contraction.

49 What is the role of the muscle spindle in reflexes such as the knee-jerk reflex?

  • A) It inhibits muscle contraction when tension is too high
  • B) It produces a monosynaptic connection with the motor neurons, causing contraction of the same muscle
  • C) It detects muscle fatigue and prevents further contractions
  • D) It activates antagonistic muscles to counteract movement
  • E) It monitors joint movement to control overall body posture
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In the knee-jerk reflex, the muscle spindle detects stretching of the quadriceps and sends sensory information to the CNS, leading to a monosynaptic activation of α motor neurons, causing muscle contraction.

50 How does the CNS prevent slackening of the muscle spindle during muscle contraction?

  • A) By increasing the frequency of action potentials along sensory neurons
  • B) By activating α motor neurons only
  • C) By coactivating both α and γ motor neurons
  • D) By reducing the sensitivity of the Golgi tendon organ
  • E) By inhibiting the stretch reflex
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The CNS coactivates both α and γ motor neurons to keep the muscle spindle taut during contraction, ensuring it remains sensitive to further stretches.

51 Which of the following best describes the function of the Golgi tendon organ?

  • A) It detects changes in muscle length
  • B) It monitors tension generated by muscle contraction
  • C) It prevents muscle fatigue during prolonged activity
  • D) It regulates the rate of muscle shortening
  • E) It controls joint stability during movement
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The Golgi tendon organ detects tension generated by muscle contractions and sends signals to reduce excessive tension, preventing muscle damage.

52 What is the purpose of inhibitory interneurons in the stretch reflex?

  • A) To increase the speed of contraction in the stretched muscle
  • B) To prevent over-contraction of the agonist muscle
  • C) To inhibit the antagonist muscle during reflex contraction
  • D) To activate the antagonist muscle during the stretch reflex
  • E) To reduce the sensitivity of the Golgi tendon organ
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Inhibitory interneurons in the stretch reflex arc prevent the contraction of antagonist muscles, allowing smooth and efficient movement of the agonist muscle.

53 Which of the following best describes the relationship between extrafusal and intrafusal muscle fibers?

  • A) Intrafusal fibers run perpendicular to extrafusal fibers
  • B) Intrafusal fibers are arranged in parallel with extrafusal fibers
  • C) Intrafusal fibers are activated only during muscle relaxation
  • D) Intrafusal fibers generate muscle tension
  • E) Intrafusal fibers prevent antagonist muscle contraction
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Intrafusal fibers are arranged in parallel with extrafusal fibers, allowing the muscle spindle to detect changes in muscle length during contraction or stretch.

54 What role do type IA spindle sensory neurons play during muscle stretch?

  • A) They detect tension in the muscle-tendon junction
  • B) They provide input about the rate and magnitude of muscle lengthening
  • C) They inhibit α motor neurons
  • D) They detect muscle fatigue
  • E) They transmit sensory information to antagonist muscles
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Type Ia spindle sensory neurons are sensitive to changes in muscle length, especially during dynamic movements, providing feedback to the CNS about the rate and magnitude of stretching.

55 Which of the following best describes the role of alpha (α) motor neurons in muscle contraction?

  • A) They innervate extrafusal muscle fibers and cause muscle contraction
  • B) They innervate intrafusal muscle fibers and regulate spindle sensitivity
  • C) They inhibit antagonist muscles during reflex actions
  • D) They transmit sensory information from muscle spindles to the CNS
  • E) They control tension detected by the Golgi tendon organ
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Alpha (α) motor neurons innervate extrafusal muscle fibers, which are responsible for generating the force required for muscle contraction.

56 Which sensory information is detected by muscle spindles?

  • A) Muscle tension
  • B) Muscle length and stretch
  • C) Joint angle
  • D) Muscle fatigue
  • E) Muscle soreness
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Muscle spindles detect changes in muscle length and the rate of stretch, helping regulate muscle tone and coordination.

57 How does the Golgi tendon organ contribute to muscle protection?

  • A) It inhibits α motor neurons to reduce excessive muscle tension
  • B) It stimulates muscle contraction to prevent overstretching
  • C) It reduces sensitivity of muscle spindles
  • D) It activates antagonistic muscles during contraction
  • E) It increases fatigue resistance during intense activity
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The Golgi tendon organ detects muscle tension and sends inhibitory signals to α motor neurons, reducing contraction to prevent injury from excessive force.

58 What is the role of dynamic nuclear bag fibers in muscle spindles?

  • A) They detect the rate of muscle stretch
  • B) They monitor steady-state muscle length
  • C) They regulate the sensitivity of the Golgi tendon organ
  • D) They transmit signals to antagonistic muscles
  • E) They inhibit muscle contraction during movement
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Dynamic nuclear bag fibers detect rapid changes in muscle length, providing critical input during quick stretches to maintain posture and balance.

59 Which statement about gamma (γ) motor neurons is NOT true?

  • A) They are activated independently of α motor neurons
  • B) They regulate the sensitivity of muscle spindles
  • C) They innervate intrafusal fibers of muscle spindles
  • D) They maintain spindle tension during muscle contraction
  • E) They control the contraction of intrafusal fibers
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Gamma motor neurons are usually coactivated with α motor neurons to ensure the muscle spindle remains sensitive to stretch during contraction.

60 Which of the following best describes the role of the muscle spindle in maintaining posture?

  • A) It reduces tension in the muscles during prolonged standing
  • B) It monitors and adjusts muscle length in response to small changes in body position
  • C) It prevents muscle soreness by reducing contraction frequency
  • D) It increases tension in antagonistic muscles to prevent joint collapse
  • E) It stimulates the Golgi tendon organ to maintain muscle tone
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The muscle spindle continuously monitors muscle length and stretch, allowing the CNS to make automatic adjustments to maintain posture, especially in response to small, involuntary shifts in body position.

61 How does the CNS modulate the sensitivity of the muscle spindle to muscle stretch?

  • A) By adjusting the activity of the Golgi tendon organ
  • B) By selectively activating gamma (γ) motor neurons
  • C) By inhibiting the sensory neurons from the muscle spindle
  • D) By altering the action potential frequency in α motor neurons
  • E) By activating the antagonist muscles
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Gamma motor neurons adjust the tension of the intrafusal fibers in the muscle spindle, modulating its sensitivity to stretch. This allows the spindle to remain sensitive even during muscle contraction.

62 Which of the following accurately describes the interaction between muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs in maintaining muscle control?

  • A) Both work together to enhance muscle contraction
  • B) The muscle spindle regulates muscle tension, while the Golgi tendon organ regulates muscle length
  • C) The muscle spindle detects length changes, while the Golgi tendon organ detects tension
  • D) The Golgi tendon organ inhibits muscle spindle function during strong contractions
  • E) The muscle spindle prevents antagonist muscle contraction, while the Golgi tendon organ stimulates it
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Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

The muscle spindle monitors changes in muscle length and stretch, while the Golgi tendon organ detects muscle tension. Together, they help the CNS coordinate appropriate muscle responses for movement and protection against injury.
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