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HomeVet Questions BankBCS QuestionsMuscle and Reflex Physiology MCQs Quiz: Veterinary Questions & Answers

Muscle and Reflex Physiology MCQs Quiz: Veterinary Questions & Answers

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This Page provides Nervous System Veterinary Physiology multiple-choice questions (MCQs). These MCQs are designed to help veterinary students master the fundamental principles of nervous system physiology by testing their understanding of how neurons and synapses function. You can use these questions and answers to solidify your knowledge, prepare for exams, and build confidence in applying nervous system physiology concepts to veterinary practice as well as it comes with great explanation below each question.

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1 Troponin and tropomyosin are components of which one of the following structures?

  • A) Myosin thick filament
  • B) Sarcolemma
  • C) T tubule
  • D) Actin thin filament
  • E) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Troponin and tropomyosin are regulatory proteins associated with the actin thin filaments in skeletal and cardiac muscle. They control the interaction between actin and myosin during muscle contraction:

  • Troponin: Binds calcium ions (Ca²⁺) during contraction, causing a structural change in tropomyosin.
  • Tropomyosin: Covers actin binding sites at rest, preventing myosin from binding.

When Ca²⁺ binds to troponin, tropomyosin moves, exposing the actin binding sites for myosin, enabling contraction.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

2 When action potentials occur in skeletal muscle cells, which ion critical to the muscle’s contractile process is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

  • A) Ca²⁺
  • B) Na⁺
  • C) K⁺
  • D) Cl⁻
  • E) HCO₃⁻
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Calcium ions (Ca²⁺) are essential for initiating muscle contraction:

  • Action potential propagation: Travels along the sarcolemma and into the T tubules, reaching the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR).
  • Calcium release: Voltage changes trigger the opening of calcium release channels in the SR.
  • Contraction initiation: Released Ca²⁺ binds to troponin, shifting tropomyosin and allowing myosin to bind to actin, resulting in contraction.
  • Without Ca²⁺: The contraction process cannot proceed.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

3 A gross skeletal muscle mass can be instructed by the central nervous system to contract more forcefully by what?

  • A) Causing more of its motor units to contract simultaneously
  • B) Increasing the amount of acetylcholine released during each neuromuscular synaptic transmission
  • C) Increasing the frequency of action potentials in the α motor neuron’s axon
  • D) Both A and C
  • E) Both B and C
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

The central nervous system can increase the force of skeletal muscle contraction by:

  • Engaging more motor units: Activating additional motor units (spatial summation) ensures that more muscle fibers contract simultaneously, increasing the total force.
  • Increasing action potential frequency: Higher frequency of action potentials (temporal summation) leads to sustained contractions (tetanus), resulting in greater force generation.

These mechanisms work together to meet the demands for varying levels of muscle strength.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

4 Which one of the following is not found in smooth muscle?

  • A) Actin filaments
  • B) Myosin filaments
  • C) T tubules
  • D) Voltage-gated calcium channels
  • E) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Smooth muscle lacks T tubules, which are present in skeletal and cardiac muscle to transmit action potentials deep into muscle fibers. Instead, smooth muscle uses:

  • Caveolae: Small invaginations in the plasma membrane that facilitate calcium entry.
  • Calcium signaling: Smooth muscle relies on calcium influx through voltage-gated calcium channels and release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to initiate contraction.

Despite differences in structure, smooth muscle still has actin, myosin filaments, and a sarcoplasmic reticulum.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

5 Which one of the following is least likely to be significantly associated with a muscle that is primarily involved in brief and powerful movements?

  • A) Large α motor neuron cell body
  • B) Small motor unit
  • C) Fast-twitch fibers
  • D) White muscle
  • E) Large motor unit
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Muscles designed for brief and powerful movements typically exhibit the following characteristics:

  • Large motor units: One motor neuron innervates many muscle fibers, generating significant force.
  • Fast-twitch fibers: These fibers contract quickly and forcefully but fatigue rapidly.
  • White muscle: High in glycolytic enzymes for rapid energy production, with less myoglobin.
  • Large α motor neuron cell bodies: Needed to support the high force demands of large motor units.

Small motor units are associated with fine, precise movements, such as those in the fingers or eye muscles, not powerful movements.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

6 Which of the following is the primary role of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle contraction?

  • A) Generating action potentials
  • B) Storing and releasing calcium ions
  • C) Conducting nerve impulses to the muscle fibers
  • D) Providing energy for contraction
  • E) Attaching myosin heads to actin
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

The sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) is an organelle in muscle cells with the following primary functions:

  • Calcium storage: The SR sequesters calcium ions (Ca²⁺) at rest.
  • Calcium release: After stimulation by an action potential, the SR releases Ca²⁺ into the cytoplasm.
  • Contraction initiation: Calcium binds to troponin, causing tropomyosin to shift, exposing actin binding sites for myosin and enabling muscle contraction.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

7 Which of the following processes is primarily involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction?

  • A) Troponin binding to myosin heads
  • B) Actin filaments sliding over myosin filaments
  • C) Calcium binding to myosin heads
  • D) ATP being stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • E) Sodium ions entering the muscle fiber
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

The sliding filament mechanism is the fundamental process of muscle contraction, involving:

  • Actin filaments sliding over myosin filaments: The filaments slide past each other, shortening the sarcomere.
  • Myosin heads binding to actin: Myosin forms cross-bridges with actin, pulling the actin filaments inward.
  • ATP hydrolysis: Powers the movement of myosin heads, facilitating the sliding of actin over myosin.

This process is regulated by calcium ions binding to troponin, which moves tropomyosin, exposing binding sites on actin.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

8 Which of the following characterizes fast-twitch muscle fibers?

  • A) High endurance and resistance to fatigue
  • B) Extensive blood and mitochondrial supply
  • C) Rapid contraction speed but quick fatigue
  • D) High levels of myoglobin, giving a red appearance
  • E) Adaptation for slow, sustained movements
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Fast-twitch fibers (Type II) are specialized for:

  • Rapid contraction speed: Ideal for activities like sprinting or jumping.
  • Quick fatigue: They rely on anaerobic metabolism for energy, which produces ATP rapidly but inefficiently.
  • Low myoglobin and mitochondrial content: Gives them a white appearance and limits endurance.

In contrast, slow-twitch fibers (Type I) are better suited for endurance due to their reliance on aerobic metabolism and higher mitochondrial and capillary density.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

9 Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of slow-twitch muscle fibers?

  • A) They have a rich supply of blood vessels and mitochondria
  • B) They fatigue quickly during intense activity
  • C) They generate more force than fast-twitch fibers
  • D) They are used primarily for brief, powerful movements
  • E) They contain low levels of myoglobin
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Slow-twitch muscle fibers (Type I) are specialized for endurance and prolonged activities such as posture maintenance or long-distance running. Key features include:

  • Rich blood supply: Provides oxygen needed for aerobic metabolism.
  • High mitochondrial density: Supports sustained ATP production via aerobic pathways.
  • Abundant myoglobin: Enhances oxygen storage, giving these fibers a red appearance.

These characteristics make them highly resistant to fatigue but less powerful than fast-twitch fibers.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

10 What is the function of T tubules in skeletal muscle fibers?

  • A) Storing calcium ions
  • B) Generating energy for muscle contraction
  • C) Conducting action potentials into the interior of the muscle fiber
  • D) Transmitting nerve impulses to muscle cells
  • E) Providing structural support to muscle fibers
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

T tubules (transverse tubules) are invaginations of the muscle fiber’s plasma membrane (sarcolemma) that:

  • Allow action potentials to propagate: Ensures uniform release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum throughout the fiber.
  • Synchronize muscle contraction: Enables efficient and coordinated movement by coupling excitation with contraction.

T tubules are essential for rapid and uniform excitation-contraction coupling.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

11 Which of the following statements about the motor unit is correct?

  • A) Each muscle fiber is innervated by multiple motor neurons
  • B) A motor unit consists of a single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates
  • C) Larger motor units are responsible for fine control movements
  • D) All motor units consist of the same number of muscle fibers
  • E) Each motor neuron only controls a single muscle fiber
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

A motor unit is defined as:

  • One motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates.
  • Small motor units: Found in muscles requiring fine control (e.g., fingers, eyes).
  • Large motor units: Found in muscles responsible for powerful, gross movements (e.g., quadriceps).

Each muscle fiber is innervated by only one motor neuron, but a single motor neuron can control multiple muscle fibers.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

12 Which of the following best explains why skeletal muscle contracts more forcefully as more motor units are stimulated?

  • A) The muscle fibers become larger
  • B) The sarcomeres increase in length
  • C) More actin and myosin interactions occur as additional muscle fibers contract
  • D) The muscle fibers store more calcium
  • E) ATP production increases as more motor units are recruited
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

When more motor units are stimulated:

  • Additional muscle fibers are activated, leading to an increased number of actin-myosin interactions.
  • This results in greater force production, as the total number of contracting fibers increases.

This mechanism, called spatial summation, allows muscles to generate varying levels of force depending on the demand.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

13 What is the function of calcium ions (Ca²⁺) in muscle contraction?

  • A) Depolarizing the muscle fiber membrane
  • B) Binding to actin to initiate contraction
  • C) Binding to troponin to remove tropomyosin from actin binding sites
  • D) Providing energy for myosin heads
  • E) Blocking the myosin binding sites on actin
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Calcium ions (Ca²⁺) play a critical role in muscle contraction by:

  • Binding to troponin on the actin filament.
  • This causes a conformational change in troponin, which moves tropomyosin, exposing the myosin binding sites on actin.
  • Myosin heads then bind to actin, initiating the cross-bridge cycle and contraction.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

14 Which of the following best describes the role of ATP during muscle contraction?

  • A) ATP binds to actin to cause contraction
  • B) ATP is used to pump calcium back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • C) ATP is required to detach myosin heads from actin after the power stroke
  • D) ATP depolarizes the muscle cell membrane
  • E) ATP is stored in the T tubules for future use
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

ATP is essential at multiple stages of muscle contraction:

  • Detachment of myosin from actin: After the power stroke, ATP binds to myosin, causing it to release actin.
  • Re-cocking of the myosin head: ATP hydrolysis provides the energy to re-cock the myosin head, preparing it for the next cycle.
  • Relaxation: ATP powers the calcium pumps (SERCA) in the sarcoplasmic reticulum, removing calcium ions from the cytoplasm and allowing the muscle to relax.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

15 Which of the following is true about the difference between cardiac and skeletal muscle contraction?

  • A) Both cardiac and skeletal muscle contractions rely entirely on intracellular calcium sources
  • B) Cardiac muscle requires extracellular calcium for contraction, whereas skeletal muscle does not
  • C) Cardiac muscle contains no sarcoplasmic reticulum, while skeletal muscle does
  • D) Cardiac muscle contractions are controlled by motor neurons, while skeletal muscle contractions are not
  • E) Cardiac muscle action potentials travel via T tubules, whereas skeletal muscle does not use T tubules
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

In cardiac muscle, calcium influx from the extracellular space via voltage-gated calcium channels is crucial. This influx triggers the release of additional calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (calcium-induced calcium release). In contrast, skeletal muscle relies almost entirely on calcium stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum for contraction, with minimal dependence on extracellular calcium.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

16 In which of the following ways is smooth muscle contraction different from skeletal muscle contraction?

  • A) Smooth muscle contraction is initiated by acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction
  • B) Smooth muscle relies mainly on extracellular calcium ions for contraction
  • C) Smooth muscle cells contain T tubules similar to skeletal muscle
  • D) Smooth muscle contracts faster than skeletal muscle
  • E) Smooth muscle contraction requires a higher concentration of ATP than skeletal muscle contraction
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Smooth muscle lacks a well-developed sarcoplasmic reticulum, so it primarily depends on calcium influx from the extracellular fluid via voltage-gated calcium channels. Unlike skeletal muscle, smooth muscle does not have T tubules and its contractions are slower but more sustained. Smooth muscle contraction can be initiated by various stimuli (e.g., hormones, stretch), not just acetylcholine at neuromuscular junctions.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

17 What is the primary function of the Z disks in a sarcomere?

  • A) They connect myosin filaments to the sarcolemma
  • B) They attach actin filaments and help define the boundaries of a sarcomere
  • C) They store calcium for muscle contraction
  • D) They provide ATP for muscle contraction
  • E) They prevent actin and myosin from interacting
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Z disks are critical structural components of the sarcomere, the functional unit of muscle contraction. Their primary functions include:

  • Attaching actin filaments: They serve as attachment points for thin filaments.
  • Defining sarcomere boundaries: The region between two Z disks constitutes a single sarcomere.
  • Transmission of force: They help distribute tension across the muscle fiber during contraction.

These structural roles ensure the alignment and coordination of sarcomeres during muscle contraction.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

18 What is the significance of the motor neuron pool in muscle control?

  • A) It contains all the motor units that innervate a particular muscle
  • B) It regulates the amount of ATP used during muscle contraction
  • C) It determines the rate of action potential conduction in muscle fibers
  • D) It stores calcium ions necessary for muscle contraction
  • E) It is responsible for repairing damaged muscle fibers
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

The motor neuron pool is the group of motor neurons that:

  • Innervate a single muscle: Each motor neuron in the pool controls a subset of the muscle fibers through motor units.
  • Controls force generation: Recruitment of motor units within the pool increases the force produced by the muscle (spatial summation).
  • Supports precision and adaptability: Smaller motor units within the pool control fine movements, while larger units manage gross, powerful movements.

This organization allows the nervous system to finely tune muscle activity based on functional demands.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

19 Which of the following processes best explains how muscles prevent fatigue during prolonged low-intensity activities?

  • A) Increasing the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction
  • B) Selective activation of fast-twitch fibers
  • C) Alternating the activation of different motor units
  • D) Reducing the frequency of action potentials
  • E) Storing more calcium in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

During low-intensity, sustained activities, muscles prevent fatigue by:

  • Rotating motor unit activation (asynchronous recruitment): Different motor units are activated and deactivated in a cyclical pattern.
  • This allows some muscle fibers to rest while others remain active, maintaining a steady contraction without exhausting all fibers simultaneously.

This process is common in postural muscles and muscles used in endurance activities.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

20 Which of the following statements about electromyograms (EMGs) is correct?

  • A) EMGs measure the blood supply to muscles.
  • B) EMGs record the electrical activity generated by muscle fibers during contraction.
  • C) EMGs determine the amount of calcium stored in muscle fibers.
  • D) EMGs only measure the activity of smooth muscles.
  • E) EMGs are used to detect the levels of ATP in muscle cells.
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

An electromyogram (EMG):

  • Measures the electrical activity of muscle fibers during rest, contraction, and relaxation.
  • Provides diagnostic information on muscle health and neuromuscular disorders, such as myopathies or nerve injuries.

EMGs are useful for evaluating the integrity of the neuromuscular system but do not measure blood flow, calcium, or ATP levels.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

21 What is the role of titin in the sarcomere?

  • A) It binds calcium ions to initiate contraction
  • B) It attaches myosin to the Z disk and helps maintain sarcomere elasticity
  • C) It stores ATP for muscle contraction
  • D) It blocks myosin-binding sites on actin in the absence of calcium
  • E) It regulates the release of neurotransmitters at the neuromuscular junction
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Titin is a large, elastic protein in the sarcomere that:

  • Attaches the myosin filaments to the Z disks, anchoring them in place.
  • Acts as a molecular spring, providing elasticity and structural support to the sarcomere.
  • Helps the sarcomere return to its resting length after contraction, contributing to muscle elasticity and stability.

Titin is the largest known protein and plays a key role in maintaining the organization and function of the sarcomere.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

22 How do smooth muscle cells differ from skeletal muscle cells in terms of neural control?

  • A) Smooth muscle cells are controlled only by the somatic nervous system
  • B) Skeletal muscle cells receive input from both excitatory and inhibitory neurons
  • C) Smooth muscle cells can be stimulated by autonomic neurons, hormones, or stretch
  • D) Skeletal muscle cells contract spontaneously without neural input
  • E) Smooth muscle contraction is faster than skeletal muscle contraction
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Smooth muscle cells differ from skeletal muscle cells in the following ways:

  • Smooth muscles are regulated by the autonomic nervous system (involuntary control), unlike skeletal muscles, which are controlled by the somatic nervous system (voluntary control).
  • Smooth muscles can also contract in response to:
    • Hormones (e.g., oxytocin, adrenaline).
    • Stretch or changes in tension.
    • Intrinsic electrical activity (e.g., pacemaker cells in the gut).

This diverse control mechanism enables smooth muscles to function in various physiological processes, such as digestion and blood vessel regulation, without requiring constant neural input.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

23 Which of the following statements about excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle is correct?

  • A) Calcium influx from the extracellular fluid is the primary trigger for muscle contraction
  • B) Action potentials directly cause actin and myosin to interact
  • C) Depolarization of the T tubules triggers calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • D) Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release calcium
  • E) The contraction process starts when potassium ions enter the muscle fiber
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

In skeletal muscle, excitation-contraction coupling occurs as follows:

  • An action potential travels along the sarcolemma and enters the muscle fiber through T tubules.
  • Voltage-sensitive receptors in the T tubules interact with calcium release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR), causing calcium to be released.
  • The released calcium binds to troponin, allowing the interaction between actin and myosin that initiates contraction.

Unlike cardiac muscle, skeletal muscle contraction relies primarily on calcium released from the SR, not extracellular calcium.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

24 Which of the following types of muscle fibers would you expect to predominate in muscles used for maintaining posture?

  • A) Fast-twitch glycolytic fibers
  • B) Fast-twitch oxidative fibers
  • C) Slow-twitch fibers
  • D) White muscle fibers
  • E) Large motor units
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Slow-twitch fibers (Type I) are specialized for endurance and are well-suited for maintaining posture due to:

  • Resistance to fatigue: They can sustain long-term contractions.
  • Aerobic metabolism: Supported by high mitochondrial content, capillary density, and myoglobin levels.
  • Efficient energy usage: Ideal for muscles like those in the back and legs, which are active during prolonged postural maintenance.

Fast-twitch fibers are designed for short bursts of power and fatigue quickly, making them unsuitable for sustained posture.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

25 Which mechanism allows skeletal muscle fibers to increase the force of contraction without changing the length of the muscle?

  • A) Frequency summation
  • B) Multiple fiber summation
  • C) Length-tension relationship
  • D) Isometric contraction
  • E) Isotonic contraction
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

In an isometric contraction, the muscle generates force without changing its length. This occurs when:

  • The muscle contracts but the load is too heavy to move, such as holding a weight in a fixed position.
  • The sarcomeres generate tension, but no shortening occurs because the muscle’s force matches the opposing force.

Isometric contractions are essential for maintaining posture and stabilizing joints during movement.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

26 What is the primary difference between the action potentials in cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle?

  • A) Cardiac muscle action potentials are shorter in duration than those in skeletal muscle.
  • B) Cardiac muscle action potentials include a plateau phase due to calcium influx.
  • C) Cardiac muscle action potentials are transmitted via T tubules, while skeletal muscle does not use T tubules.
  • D) Skeletal muscle action potentials rely on extracellular calcium, while cardiac muscle does not.
  • E) Both types of muscle action potentials are identical.
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

In cardiac muscle, action potentials are characterized by a plateau phase, which:

  • Results from the influx of calcium ions (Ca²⁺) through slow voltage-gated calcium channels.
  • Prolongs the depolarization phase, ensuring sustained contraction for effective blood ejection.

Skeletal muscle action potentials, in contrast, are shorter and lack a plateau phase, relying mainly on calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 6, The Physiology of Muscle

27 Which of the following is NOT always a component of a reflex arc?

  • A) Receptor
  • B) Sensory neuron (CNS afferent)
  • C) Central nervous system (CNS) interneuron
  • D) Motor neuron (CNS efferent)
  • E) Target (effector) organ
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

A reflex arc typically consists of the following components:

  • Receptor: Detects the stimulus and initiates the sensory signal.
  • Sensory neuron (CNS afferent): Transmits the signal from the receptor to the CNS.
  • CNS Interneuron (Optional): Found in polysynaptic reflexes where integration of the signal occurs within the CNS. In monosynaptic reflexes (e.g., the stretch reflex), the sensory neuron synapses directly with the motor neuron, bypassing interneurons.
  • Motor neuron (CNS efferent): Carries the command from the CNS to the effector.
  • Target (Effector) Organ: Executes the reflex response, such as muscle contraction or gland secretion.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

28 Which of the following is FALSE regarding sensory receptors in a reflex arc?

  • A) They transduce environmental signals, directly or indirectly, into neuronal action potentials.
  • B) A primary receptor can be a specialized peripheral region of a sensory neuron.
  • C) They directly transduce CNS action potentials into physical activity of a target organ.
  • D) They are the initial component of a reflex arc.
  • E) They can amplify weak stimuli to enhance detection.
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Sensory receptors play a key role in initiating the reflex arc by converting environmental stimuli into neuronal signals. They:

  • Detect stimuli and transduce them into action potentials for transmission to the CNS.
  • Some receptors amplify weak stimuli to enhance detection.
  • They do not transduce CNS action potentials into physical activity; that is the role of motor neurons and effectors.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

29 What happens to the frequency of action potentials along the sensory neuron from a receptor when the intensity of the stimulus is increased?

  • A) Increases
  • B) Decreases
  • C) No change
  • D) Alters the amplitude of each action potential
  • E) Stops once the threshold is reached
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Sensory receptors encode the intensity of a stimulus through the frequency of action potentials generated:

  • Low-intensity stimuli generate fewer action potentials per second.
  • High-intensity stimuli produce a higher frequency of action potentials.

Action potentials remain constant in amplitude, but the firing rate increases to reflect the intensity of the stimulus.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Sensory Coding

30 Which of the following is an example of a segmental reflex?

  • A) Quadriceps stretch reflex
  • B) Cutaneous trunci reflex
  • C) Vestibulospinal postural reflexes
  • D) Pupillary light reflex
  • E) Proprioceptive positioning reaction
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

A segmental reflex is a reflex arc confined to a small rostrocaudal region of the central nervous system (CNS):

  • The quadriceps stretch reflex (knee jerk reflex) involves sensory input and motor output through the spinal cord segments L4–L6. This reflex restores muscle length after stretch without involving higher brain centers.
  • Other options involve broader CNS regions:
    • Cutaneous trunci reflex: Intersegmental, spanning multiple spinal cord segments.
    • Vestibulospinal reflexes: Suprasegmental, involving the brainstem and spinal cord.
    • Pupillary light reflex: Suprasegmental, requiring coordination between the retina and brainstem.
    • Proprioceptive positioning reaction: Long-loop reflex requiring input from the brain for proper paw placement.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

31 In which type of reflex arc does the CNS circuitry traverse several spinal cord segments?

  • A) Segmental reflex
  • B) Monosynaptic reflex
  • C) Intersegmental reflex
  • D) Suprasegmental reflex
  • E) Long-loop reflex
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

An intersegmental reflex involves multiple spinal cord segments for its processing. For example, the cutaneous trunci reflex involves sensory input and motor output that span several segments of the spinal cord. This is in contrast to a segmental reflex, which only involves one segment, and a monosynaptic reflex, which is the simplest form, involving a direct connection between sensory and motor neurons (no interneuron).

  • Intersegmental reflexes integrate input from multiple spinal levels, providing a more complex response.
  • Monosynaptic reflexes (e.g., the patellar reflex) involve only one synapse.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

32 Which of the following reflexes is considered suprasegmental, involving both the spinal cord and the brain?

  • A) Quadriceps stretch reflex
  • B) Pupillary light reflex
  • C) Cutaneous trunci reflex
  • D) Flexor withdrawal reflex
  • E) Crossed extensor reflex
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

A suprasegmental reflex involves the brain in addition to the spinal cord. The pupillary light reflex is controlled by the brainstem, where light entering the eye triggers a response that leads to pupil constriction. This reflex involves higher centers in the brain, distinguishing it from spinal reflexes like the quadriceps stretch reflex, which only involves spinal cord activity.

  • Suprasegmental reflexes require coordination between the spinal cord and brain.
  • Spinal reflexes like the flexor withdrawal reflex do not require brain involvement.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

33 Which of the following best describes a polysynaptic reflex?

  • A) A reflex involving only one synapse between the sensory and motor neurons
  • B) A reflex where multiple neurons are involved between the sensory input and motor output
  • C) A reflex with no synapses in the central nervous system
  • D) A reflex with a direct connection between the receptor and effector organs
  • E) A reflex that bypasses the central nervous system entirely
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

A polysynaptic reflex involves multiple synapses, typically with interneurons situated between the sensory and motor neurons. This creates a more complex reflex pathway compared to a monosynaptic reflex, which involves only one synapse between the sensory and motor neurons (e.g., the patellar reflex).

  • Polysynaptic reflexes allow for more complex processing and modulation of the reflex response.
  • Monosynaptic reflexes are simpler and faster as they involve a direct connection without interneurons.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

34 What is the role of interneurons in a polysynaptic reflex arc?

  • A) They transmit the action potential from sensory to motor neurons directly.
  • B) They act as mediators between sensory and motor neurons, modulating the response.
  • C) They transduce environmental signals into electrical signals.
  • D) They are responsible for motor output to the effector organs.
  • E) They directly stimulate the receptor organ.
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

In a polysynaptic reflex arc, interneurons serve as mediators, processing and integrating the sensory input before sending the signal to the motor neurons. This allows for modulation of the reflex response, making the reflex more adaptable and complex.

  • Interneurons help refine the motor output by integrating signals from various sensory inputs and coordinating a more appropriate response.
  • Without interneurons, reflexes would be more basic and less flexible.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

35 Which of the following reflexes involves both excitation and inhibition of muscles?

  • A) Pupillary light reflex
  • B) Monosynaptic stretch reflex
  • C) Knee jerk reflex
  • D) Flexor withdrawal reflex
  • E) Proprioceptive positioning reaction
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

The flexor withdrawal reflex is a polysynaptic reflex that involves both excitation of the flexor muscles and inhibition of the extensor muscles in the same limb. This occurs through reciprocal inhibition, allowing the limb to withdraw from a harmful stimulus (e.g., a painful stimulus such as heat or a sharp object).

  • Excitation of flexor muscles: Causes the limb to flex and withdraw.
  • Inhibition of extensor muscles: Prevents the limb from extending, allowing for a quicker withdrawal.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

36 Which of the following changes may result from damage to descending motor tracts that modulate reflexes?

  • A) Complete loss of all reflex activity
  • B) Reduced frequency of action potentials in sensory neurons
  • C) Exaggerated reflex responses
  • D) Increased synaptic delay in the reflex arc
  • E) Decreased sensory receptor activation
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Damage to the descending motor tracts (e.g., corticospinal tract) that modulate reflexes can remove the inhibitory input normally provided by the brain to the spinal cord. This lack of inhibition often leads to exaggerated reflex responses, a condition known as hyperreflexia, commonly observed in spinal cord injuries.

  • Exaggerated reflexes occur because the normal balance of excitation and inhibition is disrupted, leading to overactive reflexes.
  • This damage does not typically cause the complete loss of reflexes but rather enhances their intensity.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

37 What is the function of the sensory receptor in a reflex arc?

  • A) It generates action potentials that directly cause muscle contraction.
  • B) It detects environmental stimuli and transduces them into action potentials.
  • C) It transmits signals from the brain to motor neurons.
  • D) It inhibits antagonistic muscles during reflexes.
  • E) It acts as a relay station between sensory and motor neurons.
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

The sensory receptor is the first component of a reflex arc. Its main role is to detect environmental changes (stimuli) and convert them into electrical signals known as action potentials. These signals are sent to the central nervous system for processing and response.

  • Examples of stimuli include pressure, temperature, or pain.
  • This process, called transduction, ensures that the body can respond to changes in its environment.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

38 Which of the following is a characteristic of a monosynaptic reflex?

  • A) It involves multiple synapses between sensory neurons, interneurons, and motor neurons.
  • B) It has only one synapse between a sensory neuron and a motor neuron.
  • C) It requires input from the brain for modulation.
  • D) It includes both excitatory and inhibitory signals to different muscles.
  • E) It involves a delay due to the presence of multiple interneurons.
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

A monosynaptic reflex involves a single synapse in the central nervous system between the sensory neuron and motor neuron. This direct connection ensures a quick response to stimuli.

  • Example: The knee jerk reflex (stretch reflex) is a monosynaptic reflex.
  • This type of reflex does not involve interneurons, making it the simplest and fastest reflex arc.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

39 How is the intensity of a stimulus communicated to the CNS in a reflex arc?

  • A) Through the size of the action potential
  • B) By increasing the number of action potentials generated
  • C) By activating inhibitory neurons
  • D) By changing the location of the synapse
  • E) By altering the effector organ response
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

The intensity of a stimulus is conveyed through frequency coding. Stronger stimuli generate a higher frequency of action potentials in sensory neurons, providing the central nervous system (CNS) with information about the strength of the stimulus.

  • Action potential size remains constant; only the frequency changes.
  • This mechanism ensures that the CNS can differentiate between weak and strong stimuli.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

40 Which of the following components in a reflex arc is responsible for executing the final reflex action?

  • A) Sensory receptor
  • B) CNS interneuron
  • C) Motor neuron
  • D) Sensory neuron
  • E) Synapse
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

The motor neuron (efferent neuron) carries action potentials from the CNS to the effector organ (e.g., muscle or gland), which executes the reflex response.

  • Example: In the knee jerk reflex, the motor neuron stimulates the quadriceps muscle to contract.
  • The motor neuron is the final link in the reflex arc, translating CNS output into action.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

41 In a suprasegmental reflex, which part of the nervous system is involved?

  • A) Only the spinal cord
  • B) Only one or two spinal segments
  • C) The spinal cord and brain
  • D) Only cranial nerves
  • E) Only peripheral nerves
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

A suprasegmental reflex involves neural pathways that connect the spinal cord and the brain. These reflexes integrate sensory input and motor output across multiple levels of the nervous system.

  • Example: The pupillary light reflex relies on sensory input from the retina that travels to the brain and motor output from the brainstem to control pupil constriction.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

42 Which of the following best describes a long-loop reflex?

  • A) The reflex arc travels within one spinal segment
  • B) It involves multiple segments of the spinal cord and brain
  • C) The reflex bypasses the CNS entirely
  • D) It includes only a single synapse in the reflex pathway
  • E) It involves only peripheral nerves without CNS involvement
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

A long-loop reflex involves pathways that travel from the spinal cord to the brain and back to the spinal cord. This allows for complex neural integration and reflex modulation, making these reflexes slower but more adaptive.

  • Example: Proprioceptive positioning reactions involve sensory signals from the limbs traveling to the brain, where they are processed and integrated before motor commands are sent back to adjust limb position.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

43 What is the role of reciprocal inhibition in reflex arcs?

  • A) It allows simultaneous activation of antagonistic muscle groups.
  • B) It enhances the response of the effector organ.
  • C) It prevents the contraction of antagonistic muscles during reflex actions.
  • D) It increases the speed of signal transmission along the reflex arc.
  • E) It helps to reduce the overall intensity of the reflex response.
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Reciprocal inhibition is a mechanism in reflex arcs that ensures efficient movement by preventing the contraction of antagonistic muscles.

  • When one set of muscles (e.g., flexors) is activated during a reflex, reciprocal inhibition prevents the opposing muscles (e.g., extensors) from contracting.
  • This ensures smooth and coordinated movements.
  • Example: In the flexor withdrawal reflex, flexor muscles contract to withdraw the limb, while reciprocal inhibition prevents extensor muscles from counteracting the movement.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

44 What happens to reflex responses when there is damage to descending motor tracts?

  • A) Reflexes are completely lost.
  • B) Reflexes become diminished and weaker.
  • C) Reflexes become exaggerated due to loss of inhibitory control.
  • D) Reflexes occur at a slower rate.
  • E) Reflexes bypass the sensory neuron components.
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Descending motor tracts, such as the corticospinal tract, provide inhibitory control over reflex circuits. When these pathways are damaged:

  • Inhibitory control is lost, leading to hyperreflexia (exaggerated reflex responses).
  • This occurs because the normal balance between excitation and inhibition in the reflex arc is disrupted.
  • Example: Hyperreflexia is commonly observed in spinal cord injuries, where descending pathways are disrupted.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

45 Which of the following describes the function of interneurons in reflex arcs?

  • A) They transmit action potentials directly from the sensory to motor neurons.
  • B) They modulate and integrate sensory input before sending signals to motor neurons.
  • C) They serve as effector organs that respond to CNS action potentials.
  • D) They generate action potentials based on sensory input.
  • E) They transduce environmental stimuli into neural signals.
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Interneurons are crucial components of polysynaptic reflex arcs, where they act as intermediaries between sensory and motor neurons. Their role includes:

  • Modulating sensory input: Interneurons process and refine sensory signals to determine the appropriate motor response.
  • Integrating information: They can combine input from multiple sensory neurons to produce a coordinated and precise output.
  • Facilitating complex reflexes: By introducing additional synapses, interneurons allow for more adaptable and controlled reflex responses.

Example: In the flexor withdrawal reflex, interneurons coordinate the activation of flexor muscles and the inhibition of extensor muscles to withdraw the limb efficiently.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

46 What happens to the frequency of action potentials in sensory neurons of muscle spindles when the muscle is stretched?

  • A) Increases
  • B) Decreases
  • C) Does not change
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

When a muscle is stretched, the intrafusal fibers of the muscle spindle are also stretched. This increases the firing rate of sensory neurons (specifically, type Ia and type II afferent fibers) associated with the muscle spindle.

  • Function: Muscle spindles detect changes in muscle length and the speed of stretching.
  • Result: Increased frequency of action potentials informs the CNS of muscle elongation, initiating reflex responses like the stretch reflex to maintain posture or prevent overstretching.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

47 Activation of the Golgi tendon organ in a muscle leads to which of the following responses?

  • A) Monosynaptically produces EPSPs on the α motor neuron that returns to that muscle
  • B) Is most effectively produced by lengthening of the extrafusal fibers
  • C) Polysynaptically produces IPSPs on the α motor neuron that returns to that muscle
  • D) Polysynaptically produces EPSPs on the α motor neuron that returns to that muscle
  • E) Activates motor neurons that return to the Golgi tendon organ itself
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

The Golgi tendon organ (GTO) monitors muscle tension by detecting force exerted on tendons. When activated:

  • Pathway: Signals from the GTO travel via type Ib afferent fibers to the spinal cord.
  • Response: GTO activation inhibits α motor neurons that innervate the same muscle (via inhibitory interneurons in a polysynaptic reflex). This inhibition results in reduced muscle contraction (IPSPs), protecting the muscle and tendon from excessive tension and potential injury.

Key Point: Unlike muscle spindles, which respond to changes in length, the GTO responds to changes in tension.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

48 Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the muscle spindle?

  • A) Encapsulated intrafusal fibers
  • B) Sensitivity to muscle tension
  • C) Sensitivity to dynamic stretching of the muscle
  • D) Lying parallel to the extrafusal muscle fibers
  • E) Sensitivity to steady-state length of the muscle
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

The muscle spindle is a sensory organ that detects changes in muscle length and the rate of length change (dynamic and static sensitivity). It is not involved in detecting muscle tension, which is the role of the Golgi tendon organ (GTO).

  • Characteristics of muscle spindles:
  • Encapsulated intrafusal fibers.
  • Parallel alignment to extrafusal fibers.
  • Sensitivity to dynamic stretching (e.g., sudden changes in length).
  • Sensitivity to steady-state length (static changes).

Golgi tendon organ vs. Muscle spindle:

  • The GTO detects tension generated during muscle contraction or stretch.
  • The muscle spindle detects changes in length and the velocity of stretch.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

49 Gamma (γ) motor neurons serve which of the following functions?

  • A) Innervate and produce contraction of the equatorial (middle) region of an intrafusal fiber
  • B) Have their cell bodies in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord
  • C) Are never activated at the same time as α motor neurons
  • D) Can regulate the sensitivity of the muscle spindle sensory organ
  • E) Innervate and regulate the sensitivity of the Golgi tendon organ
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Gamma (γ) motor neurons adjust the sensitivity of the muscle spindle by innervating the polar ends of intrafusal fibers.

  • Function: Tightening intrafusal fibers increases the sensitivity of muscle spindle sensory neurons to stretch.
  • Result: Slackening intrafusal fibers decreases sensitivity during muscle contraction, ensuring the spindle remains functional at different muscle lengths.
  • Key points:
  • γ motor neurons are activated along with α motor neurons (α-γ coactivation) to maintain spindle sensitivity during voluntary movements.
  • They do not innervate the equatorial region of intrafusal fibers or the Golgi tendon organ.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

50 What is the role of the muscle spindle in reflexes such as the knee-jerk reflex?

  • A) It inhibits muscle contraction when tension is too high.
  • B) It produces a monosynaptic connection with the motor neurons, causing contraction of the same muscle.
  • C) It detects muscle fatigue and prevents further contractions.
  • D) It activates antagonistic muscles to counteract movement.
  • E) It monitors joint movement to control overall body posture.
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

In the knee-jerk reflex, the muscle spindle plays a critical role by detecting muscle stretch in the quadriceps when the patellar tendon is tapped.

  • Mechanism:
  • Stretching of the quadriceps activates the muscle spindle.
  • Sensory neurons send signals to the CNS via a monosynaptic reflex arc.
  • α Motor neurons are activated, causing the quadriceps to contract and extend the knee.

Purpose: This reflex helps maintain posture and balance by counteracting sudden stretches.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

51 How does the CNS prevent slackening of the muscle spindle during muscle contraction?

  • A) By increasing the frequency of action potentials along sensory neurons
  • B) By activating α motor neurons only
  • C) By coactivating both α and γ motor neurons
  • D) By reducing the sensitivity of the Golgi tendon organ
  • E) By inhibiting the stretch reflex
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

During muscle contraction, α-γ coactivation ensures that the muscle spindle remains sensitive to stretch.

  • α Motor neurons: Activate extrafusal muscle fibers, causing contraction of the main muscle body.
  • γ Motor neurons: Tighten the intrafusal fibers of the muscle spindle, keeping it taut even as the muscle shortens.

This mechanism allows the spindle to continuously monitor muscle length changes and maintain sensitivity during active movements.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

52 Which of the following best describes the function of the Golgi tendon organ?

  • A) It detects changes in muscle length.
  • B) It monitors tension generated by muscle contraction.
  • C) It prevents muscle fatigue during prolonged activity.
  • D) It regulates the rate of muscle shortening.
  • E) It controls joint stability during movement.
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

The Golgi tendon organ (GTO) is a sensory receptor located at the junction between muscle fibers and their tendons. Its primary role is to monitor tension generated during muscle contraction and stretch.

  • Mechanism:
  • Increased tension activates the GTO, sending signals via type Ib sensory neurons to the spinal cord.
  • These signals trigger inhibitory interneurons, which reduce the activity of α motor neurons, leading to decreased muscle contraction.

Purpose: Prevents excessive tension that could damage the muscle or tendon, maintaining muscle-tendon integrity during intense activity.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

53 What is the purpose of inhibitory interneurons in the stretch reflex?

  • A) To increase the speed of contraction in the stretched muscle
  • B) To prevent over-contraction of the agonist muscle
  • C) To inhibit the antagonist muscle during reflex contraction
  • D) To activate the antagonist muscle during the stretch reflex
  • E) To reduce the sensitivity of the Golgi tendon organ
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

In the stretch reflex, inhibitory interneurons play a critical role in ensuring smooth and coordinated movement by preventing the contraction of the antagonist muscle.

  • Mechanism:
  • When the muscle spindle detects stretch, sensory neurons activate α motor neurons of the agonist muscle (the muscle being stretched).
  • Simultaneously, inhibitory interneurons synapse with motor neurons of the antagonist muscle, preventing its contraction.

Purpose: This process, known as reciprocal inhibition, ensures that the agonist muscle contracts without resistance from its antagonist, allowing efficient joint movement.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

54 Which of the following best describes the relationship between extrafusal muscle fibers and intrafusal muscle fibers in the muscle spindle?

  • A) Intrafusal fibers run perpendicular to extrafusal fibers.
  • B) Intrafusal fibers are arranged in series with extrafusal fibers.
  • C) Intrafusal fibers are arranged in parallel with extrafusal fibers.
  • D) Intrafusal fibers are activated only during muscle relaxation.
  • E) Intrafusal fibers are responsible for generating muscle tension.
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

The intrafusal fibers of the muscle spindle are arranged in parallel to the extrafusal fibers, which make up the main muscle body.

  • Purpose of this arrangement:
  • The parallel alignment allows the muscle spindle to detect changes in muscle length as the extrafusal fibers are stretched.
  • This arrangement ensures that changes in muscle length are accurately communicated to the central nervous system for reflex adjustments.

Key distinction: Intrafusal fibers do not contribute significantly to muscle tension; that is the role of extrafusal fibers.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

55 What role do type Ia spindle sensory neurons play during muscle stretch?

  • A) They detect the tension in the muscle-tendon junction.
  • B) They respond to changes in muscle tension.
  • C) They provide input about the rate and magnitude of muscle lengthening.
  • D) They inhibit the α motor neurons in the stretched muscle.
  • E) They detect muscle fatigue during prolonged contractions.
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Type Ia spindle sensory neurons are highly sensitive to both the rate and magnitude of muscle stretch.

  • Function:
  • During dynamic muscle stretch, type Ia fibers rapidly increase their firing rate to signal the CNS about the speed and extent of lengthening.
  • This information is critical for reflex actions, such as the stretch reflex, which maintains muscle tone and prevents overstretching.

Key distinction: Unlike type Ib fibers in the Golgi tendon organ, type Ia fibers focus on length changes, not muscle tension.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

56 Which of the following best describes the function of alpha (α) motor neurons in muscle contraction?

  • A) They innervate intrafusal muscle fibers and regulate spindle sensitivity.
  • B) They innervate extrafusal muscle fibers and cause muscle contraction.
  • C) They inhibit the antagonist muscle during a reflex.
  • D) They transmit sensory information to the CNS from muscle spindles.
  • E) They detect tension in the muscle tendon.
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Alpha (α) motor neurons are responsible for activating extrafusal muscle fibers, which are the main contractile units of skeletal muscles.

  • Function:
  • Stimulate contraction in response to voluntary movement or reflex activity.
  • Generate force required for movement and posture maintenance.

Key distinction: Unlike gamma (γ) motor neurons, which regulate the sensitivity of muscle spindles by acting on intrafusal fibers, α motor neurons focus on muscle contraction for force generation.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

57 Which of the following types of sensory information is detected by the muscle spindle?

  • A) Muscle fatigue
  • B) Muscle tension
  • C) Muscle length and stretch
  • D) Joint angle and position
  • E) Muscle soreness
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

The muscle spindle detects changes in muscle length and the rate of stretch, providing feedback to the CNS about the muscle’s current state.

  • Function:
  • Dynamic phase: Detects rapid changes in muscle length (via type Ia sensory fibers).
  • Static phase: Monitors steady-state muscle length (via type II sensory fibers).

Purpose: This information is essential for regulating muscle tone and coordinating reflexes, such as the stretch reflex, to maintain stability and prevent overstretching.

Key distinction: The Golgi tendon organ detects muscle tension, not length.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

58 How does the Golgi tendon organ contribute to muscle protection?

  • A) It stimulates muscle contraction to prevent overstretching.
  • B) It inhibits α motor neurons to reduce excessive muscle tension.
  • C) It reduces the sensitivity of muscle spindles during muscle relaxation.
  • D) It activates antagonistic muscles to counteract movement.
  • E) It sends signals to the CNS to increase muscle fatigue resistance.
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

The Golgi tendon organ (GTO) is a sensory receptor located at the junction of muscles and tendons. Its primary function is to protect muscles and tendons from damage caused by excessive tension.

  • Mechanism:
  • When the GTO detects high levels of tension, it activates type Ib sensory neurons.
  • These neurons signal the CNS to stimulate inhibitory interneurons, which reduce the activity of α motor neurons.
  • The result is a reduction in muscle contraction, preventing overexertion and potential injury.

Key Point: Unlike the muscle spindle, which monitors muscle length, the GTO is tension-sensitive and plays a protective role during forceful contractions.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

59 What is the role of the dynamic nuclear bag fibers in the muscle spindle?

  • A) They detect the rate of muscle stretch.
  • B) They monitor steady-state muscle length.
  • C) They detect muscle tension during contraction.
  • D) They transmit inhibitory signals to the antagonist muscles.
  • E) They inhibit the Golgi tendon organ during movement.
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Dynamic nuclear bag fibers are specialized intrafusal fibers within the muscle spindle that are sensitive to the rate of change in muscle length.

  • Function:
  • These fibers respond rapidly during the dynamic phase of muscle stretching, providing critical information about how quickly the muscle is lengthening.
  • This input is transmitted via type Ia sensory neurons to the CNS, contributing to reflexes that stabilize and protect muscles during movement.

Key Point: Dynamic nuclear bag fibers are distinct from static nuclear bag fibers and nuclear chain fibers, which are more sensitive to steady-state muscle length.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

60 Which of the following is NOT true about gamma (γ) motor neurons?

  • A) They regulate the sensitivity of the muscle spindle.
  • B) They innervate the polar regions of intrafusal muscle fibers.
  • C) They ensure the spindle remains taut during muscle contraction.
  • D) They are activated independently of α motor neurons.
  • E) They control the contraction of intrafusal muscle fibers.
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Gamma (γ) motor neurons work in coordination with alpha (α) motor neurons to maintain muscle spindle sensitivity during muscle contraction.

  • Key Functions:
  • Innervate the polar regions of intrafusal fibers to regulate spindle tension.
  • Prevent slackening of the spindle during contraction by ensuring it remains taut and responsive to stretch.
  • Coactivation: γ motor neurons are coactivated with α motor neurons during muscle contraction, ensuring the spindle continues to monitor length changes effectively.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

61 In which of the following situations would the frequency of action potentials in a type II spindle sensory neuron increase?

  • A) When the muscle is rapidly stretched
  • B) When the muscle is held at a steady length
  • C) When the Golgi tendon organ is activated
  • D) During muscle contraction
  • E) When the α motor neurons are inhibited
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Type II spindle sensory neurons are responsible for monitoring the static phase of muscle length.

  • Function:
  • They provide continuous feedback to the CNS about the muscle’s steady-state length when it is not dynamically changing.
  • Their firing rate increases when the muscle is maintained at a specific length.

Contrast with Type Ia fibers: Type Ia fibers respond to both dynamic and static length changes but are particularly sensitive to rapid stretching.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

62 Which of the following is NOT true about gamma (γ) motor neurons?

  • A) They regulate the sensitivity of the muscle spindle.
  • B) They innervate the polar regions of intrafusal muscle fibers.
  • C) They ensure the spindle remains taut during muscle contraction.
  • D) They are activated independently of α motor neurons.
  • E) They control the contraction of intrafusal muscle fibers.
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Gamma (γ) motor neurons work in coordination with alpha (α) motor neurons to maintain muscle spindle sensitivity during muscle contraction.

  • Key Functions:
  • Innervate the polar regions of intrafusal fibers to regulate spindle tension.
  • Prevent slackening of the spindle during contraction by ensuring it remains taut and responsive to stretch.
  • Coactivation: γ motor neurons are coactivated with α motor neurons during muscle contraction, ensuring the spindle continues to monitor length changes effectively.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

63 In which of the following situations would the frequency of action potentials in a type II spindle sensory neuron increase?

  • A) When the muscle is rapidly stretched
  • B) When the muscle is held at a steady length
  • C) When the Golgi tendon organ is activated
  • D) During muscle contraction
  • E) When the α motor neurons are inhibited
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

Type II spindle sensory neurons are responsible for monitoring the static phase of muscle length.

  • Function:
  • They provide continuous feedback to the CNS about the muscle’s steady-state length when it is not dynamically changing.
  • Their firing rate increases when the muscle is maintained at a specific length.

Contrast with Type Ia fibers: Type Ia fibers respond to both dynamic and static length changes but are particularly sensitive to rapid stretching.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

64 Which of the following accurately describes the interaction between muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs in maintaining muscle control?

  • A) Both work together to enhance muscle contraction.
  • B) The muscle spindle regulates muscle tension, while the Golgi tendon organ regulates muscle length.
  • C) The muscle spindle detects length changes, while the Golgi tendon organ detects tension.
  • D) The Golgi tendon organ inhibits muscle spindle function during strong contractions.
  • E) The muscle spindle prevents antagonist muscle contraction, while the Golgi tendon organ stimulates it.
Correct! Well done!
Incorrect! The correct answer is shown in green.

The muscle spindle and Golgi tendon organ (GTO) work together to coordinate muscle control and protect against injury:

  • Muscle spindle: Detects changes in muscle length and stretch, ensuring the muscle responds appropriately to maintain posture and movement.
  • Golgi tendon organ: Detects muscle tension and prevents overexertion by inhibiting α motor neurons when tension becomes excessive.

Together, these sensory systems allow the CNS to balance force production and prevent damage to muscles and tendons.

References: Cunningham’s Textbook of Veterinary Physiology, 6th Edition, Chapter 7, Reflex Arcs

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